Thursday, 9 February 2012

The difference between shares and stocks

We know that zakaah must be paid on shares. Are stocks also subject to zakaah? How should zakaah be worked out for them?.

Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly: 
With regard to zakaah on shares, we have discussed the zakaah on them in detail in question no. [69912]. We stated there that there are some kinds of shares on which zakaah is due, and others on which no zakaah is due. 
With regard to stocks, they are something different than shares. 
A stock is a written document stating the amount of a loan given by the bearer on a specified date in return for specified interest. 
A share is a partner’s portion of the capital of a corporation. 
From these definitions we can see the difference between shares and stocks. 
The difference between shares and stocks: 
1 – A share represents a stake in a company, meaning that the shareholder is a partner, whereas a stock represents a debt owed by the company, meaning that the stockholder is a lender. 
Based on this, the shareholder only earns profits when the company makes a profit, whereas the stockholder earns guaranteed annual interest whether the company makes a profit or not. 
Also based on this, if the company makes a loss, the shareholder has to bear some part of the loss, depending on the amount of shares he has, because he is a partner and owner of part of the company, so he must bear some part of the loss. 
The stockholder, on the other hand, does not bear any of the company’s losses because he is not a partner in the company, rather he is simply a lender, who lends money in return for benefits agreed upon whether the company makes a profit or makes losses. 
Ruling on dealing in stocks: 
Dealing in stocks is haraam according to sharee’ah, because it is a loan in return for agreed-upon interest, and this is riba (usury) which Allaah has forbidden and warned against, as He says (interpretation of the meaning): 
“O you who believe! Fear Allaah and give up what remains (due to you) from Ribaa (from now onward) if you are (really) believers.
279. And if you do not do it, then take a notice of war from Allaah and His Messenger but if you repent, you shall have your capital sums. Deal not unjustly (by asking more than your capital sums), and you shall not be dealt with unjustly (by receiving less than your capital sums)”
[al-Baqarah 2:278-279] 
The Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) cursed the one who consumes riba, the one who pays it, the one who writes it down and the two who witness it, and he said: they are all the same. Narrated by Muslim, 2995. 
In the second conference of the Islamic Bank in Kuwait 1403 AH/1982 CE it was stated: That which is called interest in the terminology of western economists and those who follow them is the essence of riba that is forbidden according to sharee’ah. End quote. 
Majallat al-Majma’ al-Fiqhi, 4/1/732 
See also the answer to question no. 2143
Zakaah on stocks 
Although it is haraam to deal in stocks, zakaah is due on them because they represent a debt owed to their owner, and debts that one hopes will be repaid are subject to zakaah according to the majority of scholars. So its zakaah must be worked out every year, but it need not be paid until one takes possession of the value of the stock. As for the interest that is taken in return for the stock, this is unclean and haraam wealth that must be disposed of by donating it to charitable causes. 
The rate of zakaah which must be paid is 2.5 per cent.
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Detailed discussion of zakaah on shares

I hope that you can give me some details on the ruling on zakaah on company shares – is zakaah due on them or not? And at what rate?.

Praise be to Allaah.
“Share” refers to a partner’s portion of the capital of a joint-stock company. 
The word is also used to refer to the document which proves that he owns this share. 
See: al-As-ham wa’l-Sanadaat (p. 47); Mawsoo’ah al-Mustalahaat al-Iqtisaadiyyah wa’l-Ihsaa’iyyah, p. 775 
The share produces a part of the company profits and may increase or decrease based on the success of the company and its increase or decrease in profits. It is possible that shares may suffer loss, because the shareholder owns a part of the company, proportionate to his number of shares. 
The value of shares 
The share has a number of values, as follows: 
1 – Nominal value: this is the value assigned to the share when the company was founded, and is mentioned in the share certificate. 
2 – Book value: this is the value of the share after the company’s obligations have been deducted and the remainder has been shared out according to the number of shares issued.
 3 – True value. This is the monetary value represented by the share, i.e., if the company were to be dissolved and its assets divided according to the number of shares.  
4 – Market value. This is the value for which the share is sold in the market, which changes according to supply and demand. 
Shares can be traded among individuals, like other products, which makes people take them as a means of trade by buying and selling them with the aim of making a profit.
In the answer to question no. 4714 we have stated that there is nothing wrong with selling company shares so long as the company’s activities are not haraam. 
How should zakaah be paid on company shares? 
Some shareholders buy shares to trade them with the aim of making a profit, and some of them buy them and kept them so that they may have income from their profits, without trading in them. 
In the former case, the shares are regarded as trade goods, for buying and selling on the stock exchange. So they come under the same ruling as trade goods, and zakaah must be paid on them according to their value at the end of every year. 
In the latter case, the contemporary scholars and researchers differed concerning such shares, but there are two main points of view: 
1 – They should be regarded as trade goods, regardless of the company’s activities. 
They said: because their owner makes a profit from them like any other trader makes a profit from his goods, so in this sense they are like trade goods. This opinion is based on the idea that tools and equipment for manufacturing are now subject to zakaah because, in their view, they are regarded as wealth whose value may increase. 
This view was adopted by Muhammad Abu Zahrah, ‘Abd al-Rahmaan ibn al-Hasan, ‘Abd al-Wahhab Khallaaf and others. 
2 – The ruling on shares differs according to the type of company that has issued the shares. 
This is the view of the majority of contemporary scholars, although they may differ amongst themselves concerning some details. The share-issuing companies may be divided into four kinds: 
(i)                Manufacturing and service companies that do not engage in any kind of trade, such as dye companies, hotel companies and transportation companies. No zakaah is due on shares in these companies, because the value of these shares is based on equipment, tools, buildings, furnishings and so on, which are needed in order to do the work, and there is no zakaah on these things. Rather zakaah is due on the profits of these shares if it reaches the nisaab and one year has passed. 
(ii)              Companies which engage only in trade (commercial companies). 
(iii)            Companies which engage both in manufacturing and trade.
Companies which engage only in trade are those which buy goods and sell them without doing anything to change them, such as import/export companies, and international trade companies. 
As for companies which engage both in manufacturing and trade, these are companies that combine both activities, such as companies that extract or buy raw materials, subject them to some changes, then trade in them, like petroleum companies, textile companies, metal companies, chemical companies, and so on.  
Zakaah must be paid on shares in these two types of companies (those that engage in trade only and those that engage in manufacturing and trade), after deducting the value of the buildings, tools, and equipment owned by these companies.   
The net value of the buildings and equipment may be worked out by referring to the company’s annual budget. 
(iv)            Agricultural companies 
In this case, zakaah is due on the crops and produce – if the produce is of the type on which zakaah is due. So it should be worked out what each share is worth in terms of crops and produce, then the share-owner must pay zakaah on it. He should pay one-tenth if the crops are irrigated naturally and half of one-tenth if they are irrigated artificially, subject to the condition that the shares reach the nisaab, which is 300 saa’s. 
The above is based on the assumption that the factories, buildings such as hotels, and cars etc that are used by the company are not subject to zakaah, except the zakaah that is due on any profits made, if it reaches the nisaab and one year has passed. This has already been discussed in the answer to question no. 74987
This second view is more correct, because a share is a part of the company, so it comes under the same rulings with regard to zakaah, whether the company is involved in manufacturing, trade or agriculture. 
This was the view of Shaykh ‘Abd al-Rahmaan ‘Eesa in his book al-Mu’aamalaat al-Hadeethah wa Ahkaamuha; and Shaykh ‘Abd-Allaah al-Bassaam and Dr. Wahbah al-Zuhayri, as stated in Majallat al-Majma’ al-Fiqhi, 4/742. 
Al-Bassaam stated that differentiating between commercial and manufacturing companies is the view of the majority. 
Majallat al-Majma’ al-Fiqhi, 4/1/725 
Note: 
It should be noted that manufacturing and agricultural companies also have cash reserves, and there is no dispute that zakaah is due on this money. It should be worked out what each share is worth of this money, and the shareowner should pay zakaah on that, if it reaches the nisaab by itself, or if it reaches the nisaab when added to his own money. 
This is the view of Dr. ‘Ali al-Saloos, as stated in Majallat al-Majma’ al-Fiqhi, 4/1/849 
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen also drew attention to this when he said: 
If a person has bought these shares for the purpose of trade – meaning that he buys these shares today and will sell them in the future whenever he can make a profit – then he must pay zakaah on these shares every year, and pay zakaah on any profit that he makes.  
But if these shares are for the purpose of investment, and he does not intend to sell them, then it depends. If they are money – gold, silver or cash money – then zakaah must be paid on them, because zakaah is due on cash, gold and silver and must be paid every year. 
In that case he should ask those who are in charge of this institution what money they have in their reserve. 
If the wealth is in the form of a product or other benefits, other than gold, silver or cash, then no zakaah is due on it, rather zakaah is due on any profits that are made, when one year has passed since taking possession of it. End quote. 
Majmoo’ Fataawa Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 18/199 
The Standing Committee for Issuing Fatwas was asked: We have invested some money in buying company shares, knowing that some of these companies deduct the zakaah before distributing the profits, and some of them do not calculate the zakaah. Should we pay zakaah on the capital or on the profits of these companies? Please note that there are two types of shares: 
(a)   Those the aim of which is to receive the profits, not to sell the shares
(b)  Another type which is to sell the shares like other kinds of trade goods. 
They replied: he has to pay zakaah on the shares which are for selling and on their profits every year. If the company pays zakaah on behalf of its owners with their permission, that is sufficient. As for the shares which are for investment only, zakaah should be paid on their profits when one year has passed, unless it is cash, in which case zakaah must be paid on the capital and on the profit. End quote. 
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah, 9/341 
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked: Some commercial companies invest in real estate etc and issue shares, and the money may be left with the company for a long time, maybe years. How should zakaah be paid on the value of these shares? Is it permissible for the owner of the company to pay zakaah on all these shares at the proper time, then deduct it from the capital of the shareholders or from the profits before they are distributed? 
He replied: 
Zakaah is due on commercial shares every year, because they are trade goods. Their value should be worked out every year when the zakaah becomes due, and one-quarter of one-tenth should be paid, whether it is equivalent to the purchase price, or more or less.
 With regard to the company owner paying the zakaah on these shares, if that is done with authorization from the shareholders, there is nothing wrong with it, and the zakaah should be worked out as explained above. But if they did not authorize him to pay the zakaah, then he should not do so; but he has to inform the shareholders of its value at the time when zakaah becomes due, so that each of them may pay the zakaah on his shares by himself, or authorize him to pay the zakaah. If some of them authorize him and some do not, then he should pay the zakaah of those who authorized him and not that of the others. 
Of course, if he pays the zakaah he will deduct it from the capital, or from the profit. End quote. 
Majmoo’ Fataawa Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 18/217 
Conclusion 
If the shareowner intends to trade in shares and make a profit, then zakaah is due on the commercial shares, both on the price of the share and on its profit. 
Zakaah is due on profits from manufacturing companies if it reaches the nisaab and one year has passed, but no zakaah is due on shares in such companies except for the cash reserves of the company.  
In the case of agricultural companies, zakaah is due on the value of the shares in crops or produce, if they are of types on which zakaah is due, subject to the condition that the amount of shares reaches the nisaab, which is 300 saa’s. Zakaah is also due on the value of shares in the company’s cash reserves. 
Is the zakaah due from the company in which shares are held or from the shareholders? 
Some researchers are of the view that zakaah on shares is due from the company. They quote as evidence the fact that the company is an independent entity which has the power to dispose of its wealth, and zakaah is a duty that has to do with the wealth, hence no conditions have been stipulated concerning being an adult and of sound mind with regard to it. 
The response to that is that even though the company is an independent entity, that does not mean that zakaah is enjoined upon it, because other conditions of zakaah being obligatory are that one should be a Muslim and be free (as opposed to being a slave), etc. These are attributes that cannot be applied to a company. Moreover, the company’s ownership of the wealth is on behalf of the shareholders, so basically the shareholders are the owners, not the company.  
They also quoted as evidence the analogy with owning shares in an an’aam animal (camel, cow, etc), because the zakaah is due on the shared wealth as a whole, not on the wealth of each partner individually.   
The answer to this is that the fact that zakaah is due on combined flocks does not mean that the zakaah is obligatory upon this partnership as a separate entity, rather what it means is that the wealth of the partners is added together and the zakaah is worked out like the zakaah of a single person. 
The majority of scholars are of the view that zakaah is obligatory upon the shareholder – and this is the correct view – because the shareholder is the true owner of the money, and the company handles his shares on his behalf according to the conditions stipulated in the company’s regulations. And zakaah is an act of worship which requires an intention (niyyah) when it is done; there is reward for paying it and punishment for withholding it, and this is inconceivable in the case of shareholding companies. 
Who should pay zakaah on shares – the company or the shareholder? 
The basic principle is that the one who should pay zakaah on shares is the owner of the shares himself, because the owner is the one who is obliged to pay his zakaah. But there is nothing wrong with the company paying zakaah on behalf of shareholders. The Fiqh Council has stated that there is no reason why a company cannot pay zakaah on behalf of shareholders in four cases:   
If that is stated in the basic regulations, or if a decision to that effect is issued by the general membership, or if the law of the state obliges companies to pay zakaah, or if the shareholder delegates the company to pay zakaah on his shares.  
Majallat al-Majma’ al-Fiqhi, 4/1/881 
Rate of zakaah on shares 
Zakaah on shares in companies is one-quarter of one-tenth, i.e., 2.5%, whether the owner intends to trade in them or keep them for the sake of their annual profit, because if they are for the purpose of trade, then they are trade goods, and the zakaah on trade goods is one-quarter of one-tenth. If they are bought in order to be kept so that one may benefit from the annual profit, then they are like real estate that is rented out, and the zakaah on rent for property is one-quarter of one-tenth. 
When does the year for shares begin? 
With regard to shares in commercial companies or shares that a person deals in, the profits are connected to the capital with regard to the year (for calculating zakaah), because a new year cannot be started for the profits on trade, rather the year starts when the wealth was originally acquired, if the original wealth reached the nisaab. 
Al-Mughni, 4/75 
It must be noted that if trade goods are bought with gold, silver or cash, a new year cannot be started for them from the time of purchase, rather the year should continue from the time when the money with which they were bought was acquired, if it reaches the nisaab. 
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: Note that the year for trade goods does not come one year after buying them, rather it comes one year after the original wealth was acquired, because trade goods are a form of money and part of your capital which you turned into trade goods, so the year starts from the time you acquired the wealth with which you bought the trade goods.” End quote. 
Majmoo’ Fataawa Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 18/234 
See also the answer to question no. 32715 
With regard to manufacturing companies and those whose shares are kept for the purpose of investment and earning the annual profit, not for trade, zakaah is due on the profits of these shares if the profit on its own reaches the nisaab, or if it reaches the nisaab when added to the money that a person has. The year begins from the time this profit was acquired, as stated by the Fiqh Council and Shaykh ‘Abd-Allaah al-Bassaam. 
See Majallat al-Majma’ al-Fiqhi, 4/1/722 
It must be noted that in the case of shares in agricultural companies and produce and crops on which zakaah is due, it is not stipulated that one year should pass before zakaah becomes due, according to scholarly consensus, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): 
“but pay the due thereof (their Zakaah) on the day of their harvest”
[al-An’aam 6:141] 
al-Mawsoo’ah al-Fiqhiyyah, 23/281 
So the zakaah of each harvest should be worked out separately. 
How should the value of shares be calculated in order to pay zakaah? 
With regard to the shares on which zakaah is due (namely shares in which the owner deals, or shares in commercial companies), the zakaah must be paid according to their market value at the end of the year, because these shares are trade goods, and the value of trade goods should be worked out at the end of the year and the zakaah paid on the basis of this value, regardless of the nominal value of the shares. 
See question no. 32715 
With regard to shares on which no zakaah is due (shares in manufacturing or service companies), there is no need to work out their value at the end of the year, because the zakaah is due only on their profits, not on the shares. 
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked: Is the zakaah on shares based on the official value of the shares or on the market value, or what? 
He replied: 
Zakaah on shares and other kinds of trade goods is based on their market value. If it was worth one thousand at the time of purchase and is worth two thousand at the time when zakaah becomes due, then zakaah must be based on the value of two thousand, because what counts is the value of a thing at the time when zakaah becomes due, not at the time of purchase. End quote. 
Majmoo’ Fataawa Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 18/197.

Did ‘Uthmaan (may Allaah be pleased with him) left the payment of zakaah to the people?

Is it true that ‘Uthmaan ibn ‘Affaan (may Allaah be pleased with him) left payment of zakaah to the people? Why?.

Praise be to Allaah.
It is proven that ‘Uthmaan (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: “This is the month of your zakaah, so whoever owes a debt, let him pay off his debt and then pay zakaah on what is left of his wealth.” Narrated by al-Bayhaqi in al-Sunan al-Kubra with a saheeh isnaad, as stated by al-Nawawi (may Allaah have mercy on him) in al-Majmoo’. 
The fuqaha’ quoted this as evidence that a man may pay the zakaah on his hidden wealth himself. 
It says in al-Muhadhdhab: It is permissible for the owner of the wealth to distribute the zakaah of his hidden wealth himself, which is gold, silver, trade goods and buried treasure, because of the report narrated from ‘Uthmaan (may Allaah be pleased with him). 
Al-Nawawi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: al-Shaafa’i and his companions (may Allaah be pleased with them) said: The owner may distribute the zakaah of his hidden wealth himself, and there is no difference of scholarly opinion on this point. Our companions narrated that there was consensus among the Muslims. 
Hidden wealth refers to gold, silver, buried treasure, trade goods and zakaat al-fitr. 
Visible wealth refers to crops, livestock, fruits and minerals. As to whether it is permissible for him to distribute this zakaah himself, there are two well known views, the more sound of which is the recent view, that it is permissible. The older view is that it is not permissible and he must give the zakaah to the ruler or his deputy. End quote from al-Majmoo’ (6/136). 
It says in Kashshaaf al-Qinaa’ (2/258): It is mustahabb for a person to distribute his zakaah and zakaat al-fitrah himself, so long as he is trustworthy. That is better than giving it to a just ruler, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):  
“If you disclose your Sadaqaat (almsgiving), it is well”
[al-Baqarah 2:271] 
but he should make sure that it will reach those who are entitled to it, and no distinction is made between hidden and visible wealth. End quote. 
Conclusion: 
This verse, the words of ‘Uthmaan and his companions’ approval all indicate that it is permissible for a person to pay his zakaah himself. 
And Allaah knows best.

Paying zakaah from a child’s wealth for past years

What is the ruling if a person did not pay zakaah for the past four years out of ignorance, and he has started to pay zakaah this year? What should he do about the past years?
 What is the ruling on shares that were held under trust? Should zakaah be paid on them when the shareowner reaches puberty and the age of accountability? Please note that the trustee has not paid zakaah on it for nearly 18 years.

Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
Whoever has failed to pay zakaah for past years has to pay it, whether he omitted to do so knowingly or out of ignorance. Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about someone who did not pay zakaah for five years out of ignorance. He replied: 
You have to pay zakaah for all the past years. Your being ignorant does not mean that it is waived for you, because the obligation of zakaah is a well known part of the religion which no Muslim has any excuse for not knowing, and the ruling is not concealed from the Muslims. Zakaah is the third pillar of Islam. So you must hasten to pay zakaah for all the past years, as well as repent to Allaah for delaying it. May Allaah forgive us, you and all the Muslims. And Allaah is the Source of strength. 
End quote from Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn Baaz, 14/239 
See also question no. 21715 
An exception from that is zakaah on kinds of wealth where there is some scholarly dispute as to whether zakaah is due on them, such as jewellery that is used. Whoever does not pay zakaah on it out of ignorance, or because he follows a Shaykh who says that zakaah is not due on it, then he does not have to pay zakaah on it for the past, but he should pay zakaah on it once he knows that it is subject to zakaah. 
This was also stated in a fatwa by Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him) who said: We also draw attention to the fact that it is obligatory to pay zakaah once you know that it is required on jewellery, but with regard to the past years before knowing that it was required, you do not have to pay zakaah for that, because the rulings of sharee’ah only become binding after one learns of them, and because there is a scholarly difference of opinion on this issue. End quote from Fataawa Islamiyyah, 2/84 
Secondly: 
The majority of scholars are of the view that zakaah is due on the wealth of minors, and that being a minor does not mean that the obligation to pay zakaah is waived. 
Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: Zakaah must be paid on the wealth of minors and the insane. That was narrated from ‘Umar, ‘Ali, Ibn ‘Umar, ‘Aa’ishah, al-Hasan ibn ‘Ali and Jaabir (may Allaah be pleased with them all). It was also the view of Maalik, al-Shaafa’i and Ahmad. End quote from al-Mughni, 2/256. 
This has already been discussed in the answer to question no 75307
Thirdly: 
Not all shares are subject to zakaah. Some of them are subject to zakaah and in other cases, zakaah is only due on the profits, if they reach the nisaab and one year has passed. For more information on that, please see the answer to question no 69912 . 
If these shares are subject to zakaah, then he must pay zakaah for the past years.  
If zakaah is due on their profits only, then he must pay zakaah on the profits that reach the nisaab, after one year has passed. 
And Allaah knows best

Paying zakaah via credit card

I was wondering if it was permissible to pay zakah using a credit card since i have the funds to do so and can pill the bill without any interest.

Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly: 
It is not permissible to subscribe to credit cards unless one is forced to do so, because this is a riba-based contract, and riba is haraam according to the Qur’aan, Sunnah and scholarly consensus. 
See questions no. 1373513725 and 3402
Secondly: 
With regard to paying zakaah via credit card, if you have money saved to cover what you are going to pay, so that you will not have to pay any interest – as you mention in the question – then there is nothing wrong with paying zakaah by this method. 
But if you do not have money saved to cover what you are going to pay, then this is considered to be a loan with interest from the bank, which is riba and is haraam, so it is not permissible for you to pay zakaah or anything else by this method. Allaah is Good and does not accept anything but that which is good. 
And Allaah knows best.

Their parents invested wealth for them but they did not pay zakaah on it. What should they do?

I am a young man, twenty-six years old. My father invested money for us in a mudaarabah (investment) company, and I did not know about it until now. When I saw the mudaarabah contract, one of its clauses said the following:
The mudaarib (investor) must pay the zakaah on his wealth himself.
My question is: what is the amount of zakaah that I have to pay, because this investment was made twenty-four years ago and no zakaah has been paid on it? Must it be paid from the same capital that was invested, or is it permissible to pay it from somewhere else, as I am working and have an income?.

Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly: 
You stated that this money was invested in a mudaarabah company, but not all kinds of wealth that are put into company shares are subject to zakaah. Rather the matter is subject to further discussion. We have discussed that in the answer to question no. 69912. If zakaah is due on this wealth, then you must hasten to pay it and we ask Allaah to accept it from you. 
Secondly: 
Delaying payment of zakaah, whether that is for a valid reason or otherwise, is not waived with the passage of time, because it is a right that Allaah has given to the poor and needy, and the others who are entitled to it. 
Al-Nawawi said in al-Majmoo’ (5/302): 
If many years have passed and he has not paid zakaah on it, he must pay zakaah on all of it. End quote. 
It says in al-Mawsoo’ah al-Fiqhiyyah (23/298): 
If many years have passed in which the one who was obliged to pay zakaah did not pay it, but the conditions of it being obligatory were met, no part of it is waived, according to scholarly consensus and he must pay zakaah for all the years that have passed when he did not pay zakaah. End quote. 
See also question no. 69798
What you must to is hasten to pay zakaah for all the years that have passed before you procrastinate further. 
The ruling does not differ, whether this wealth belongs to your father or it belongs to you and he invested it for you, because zakaah is due in both cases. 
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen was asked about a man who died and owed zakaah: should it be paid and given priority over division of the state?
 He replied: 
If this man used to pay zakaah during his lifetime, but a full year had passed when he died (for which he did not pay zakaah), then his heirs must pay zakaah, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Pay off the dues of Allaah, for the dues of Allaah are most deserving of being paid off. 
But if he deliberately did not pay zakaah and withheld it out of stinginess, then this is a matter concerning which the scholars differed. In order to be on the safe side – and Allaah knows best – the zakaah should be paid, because it has to do with the rights of those who are entitled to zakaah and is not waived. The rights of those who are entitled to zakaah take precedence over the rights of the heir with regard to this wealth, but the duty of the deceased is not discharged in this case, because he persisted in not paying it. And Allaah knows best. 
Majmoo’ Fataawa Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 18/no. 43. 
Thirdly: 
There is nothing wrong with paying zakaah from wealth other than that on which zakaah is due, such as if you pay it from your salary or otherwise. This has been stated by the scholars. 
Ibn Qudaamah said: 
Paying zakaah from something other than the nisaab is permissible. 
Al-Mughni, 2/287 
Some of the scholars narrated that there was consensus on this point. ‘Abd al-‘Azeez ibn Ahmad al-Bukhaari said: According to consensus, it is permissible to pay the share of the poor from something other than the nisaab. 
Kashf al-Asraar, 3/370 
And Allaah knows best.

Paying zakaah in the form of goods instead of cash Paying zakaah in the form of goods instead of cash

In past years the month of Ramadaan has become the month of paying zakaah, and it started to be paid in the form of staple foods and other necessary items. This year we found out that zakaah on wealth must be given in the form of cash to be distributed in the manner prescribed. My question is in two parts: 
1 – What is the ruling on the way we gave zakaah in previous years by buying staple foods and essential items for the poor, and not giving cash? Were we sinning by being unaware of that? What should we do now? 
2 – In some poor families if we give them cash, the head of the household takes it and deprives the family of it so that he can buy cigarettes or satellite dishes, or go on trips, so we find that we have no choice but to buy what is needed in the house and not hand over cash, so that we can be sure that this family will benefit from it and their needs will be met. What is the ruling on that?.

Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly: 
The basic principle is that zakaah must given in the form of the wealth on which zakaah is being paid, so zakaah on cash must be given in cash, and zakaah on an’aam animals must be given in animals, and zakaah on crops must be given in crops, except zakaah on trade goods which may be given from the value of the goods or from the trade goods themselves. This has been explained in the answer to question no. 22449.  
The scholars differed as to whether it is permissible to pay zakaah in a form of wealth other than that on which zakaah is being paid, which is known to the scholars as paying the value of zakaah. The correct view is that it is not permissible to pay the value of zakaah (in another form of wealth).  
But, because there is such a strong difference of scholarly opinion concerning this issue, we hope that there is no sin on you for giving the value of zakaah in past years, but you have to give it in the same form as the wealth on which zakaah is being paid in future years. 
Secondly: 
If the poor person is foolish and does not handle money well, then some scholars have stated that it is permissible to give him zakaah in the form of specific goods rather than cash, based on what is in the best interests of the poor person and so as to meet his needs. 
Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in Majmoo’ al-Fataawa (25/82): As for paying the value of zakaah, expiation and so on, the well known view of Maalik and al-Shaafa’i is that it is not permissible, but according to Abu Haneefah it is permissible. Ahmad (may Allaah have mercy on him) disallowed giving the value in some cases and permitted it in others. The most correct view concerning this is that paying the value when there is no need to do so and when no interests are served thereby is not allowed. … 
As for paying the value when there is a need to do so, or when there is an interest to be served or it is just to do so, there is nothing wrong with that, such as if a man sells the fruits of his garden or his crops for cash, then pays one tenth of the cash, that will be acceptable and he does not have to go to the trouble of buying fruits or wheat if he has given the poor the equivalent value. Ahmad stated that this is permissible. Or if those who are entitled to zakaah ask him to give them the equivalent value because that is more useful to them, then he may give it to them. End quote. 
Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: It is also permissible to give instead of cash goods such as fabric, food and so on, if it seems that this will serve the interests of those who are entitled to zakaah,  based on the equivalent value, such as if the poor person is insane or lacking in reason or foolish or immature, and there is the fear that he would squander the money and it is better to give him food or clothing of equivalent value rather than zakaah in the form of cash. All of this is mentioned in the more correct scholarly opinion. End quote from Majmoo’ Fataawa wa Maqaalaat al-Shaykh Ibn Baaz (14/253). 
He was also asked about buying food and other items such as blankets and clothes, and giving them to the poor, especially in cases where there is not enough food available at affordable prices in that country. 
He replied: There is no reason why that should not be done, after ascertaining that they will be given to Muslims.  End quote from Majmoo’ Fataawa wa Maqaalaat al-Shaykh Ibn Baaz (14/246). 
The Standing Committee for Issuing Fatwas was asked: We would like to find out from you about giving zakaah money to buy various kinds of food and buying food and other items such as blankets and clothes, and giving them to the poor, such as in Sudan and Africa and the Afghan mujaahideen, especially in cases where there is not enough food available at affordable prices in that country, or it may not be available at all, and even when it is available, the price is many times greater than the cost of buying the food elsewhere and sending it to them. We hope that you can advise us, may Allaah reward you with good.  
They replied: If the matter is as described, then there is nothing wrong with that, based on the interests of those who are entitled to it. End quote. From Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah (9/433). 
We ask Allaah to help and guide us and you in word and in deed. 
And Allaah knows best.